An inequality of Sobolev type

gugo82
Consider the space $C_c^1(RR)$ of all the compactly-supported functions of class $C^1$ defined in $RR$: it is a real vector space and the application $u\mapsto ||u||_oo=max_(RR) |u|$ is a norm in $C_c^1(RR)$ (but $(C_c^1(RR), ||\cdot ||_oo)$ is not a Banach space).

For all $u \in C_c^1(RR)$, then $u' \in C_c(RR) \subseteq L^1(RR)$ and it is possible to evaluate $||u'||_1=\int_(-oo)^(+oo)|u'|" d"x$; the application $u \mapsto ||u'||_1$ is a norm on $C_c^1(RR)$.

***

Problem:

Show that the following inequality:

(*) $AA u in C_c^1(RR), \quad c*||u||_oo<=||u'||_1$

holds for some constant $c>0$.
Find the best constant in (*), put (*) in optimal form and show that equality holds at least for non-negative functions which are symmetric-decreasing about some point in $RR$*.



Can (*) be extended beyond $C_c^1(RR)$, i.e. to a space strictly containing $C_c^1(RR)$?


__________
* We say that a function $u$ is symmetric-decreasing about a point $x_0\in RR$ iff it satisfies the following conditions:

i) $AA xi \in RR, u(x_0+xi)=u(x_0-xi)$ (i.e. $u$ is even about $x_0$);

ii) $u$ is increasing in $]-oo,x_0]$ and decreasing in $[x_0,+oo[$;

or equivalently iff:

j) exists a decreasing function $v:[0,+oo[ \to RR$ s.t. $AA x \in RR, u(x)=v(|x-x_0|)$.

For example, the function $u(x)=1-(x-3)^2$ is symmetric-decreasing about $x_0=3$.

Risposte
gugo82
Your try (the one with $W=C_c^1(RR)+"span" \{ f\}$ and $f \in C_0^oo(RR)$ fast-decaying with all its derivatives at infinity) was a nice one. :-D

Perhaps it wasn't what I expected, mostly because spaces like $W$ aren't commonly used in the applications of Sobolev inequalities... In fact inequalities of Sobolev type, i.e. inequalities like:

$||u||_q <=c*||u'||_p$ (or $||u||_q <=c*||\nabla u||_p$),

are used to embed Sobolev spaces $W^(1,p)$ into $L^q$ with $q>p$, so that one can "gain" summability on $u$ assuming that $u$ is weakly differentiable and that it's derivative is in $L^p$.

Thomas16
"Gugo82":

since $C_c^1 \subset W^(1,1)$, (*) can actually be extended to a space strictly containing $C_c^1$.
This completes the answer to question #2.


hope not to be too polemic (I'm tired because it's all day that I study for exams...) ... but if this was the question I had answered with my $W$, which u didn't consider....

(didn't show that the inequality works, but it should be an easy (straightforword) job, more or less involving the properties of approximation u used but in a more concrete context)...

boh ok... gugo82 is nice and instructive to read so I'll pass over if he doesn't accept my solutions! :wink:

gugo82
Ok...

First, yes it was a typo; on the second line a $C_0$ (and not a $C_c$) is needed.

Second, the fact that each $u \in W^(1,1)$ is continuous and vanishes at infinity implies that (*) has a meaning also if $u \in W^(1,1)$; since $C_c^1 \subset W^(1,1)$, (*) can actually be extended to a space strictly containing $C_c^1$.
This completes the answer to question #2.

Third, the embedding $W^(1,1)\subseteq C_0$ is continuous because of (*): infact if $u,v in W^(1,1)$ then $u, v in C_0$ and:

$||u-v||_oo<= 1/2 ||u'-v'||_1<=1/2 ||u-v||_(1,1)$

so that the embedding $u \in W^(1,1) \mapsto u \in C_0$ is Lipschitz with constant $c=1/2$.

Thomas16
"Gugo82":

$\{(u_n\to u, " in " L^1(RR)),(u_n \to v, " in C_c(RR)} \quad$,


I read it quickly... just here $C_0(RR)$ seems to follow your argument right?...

- so the question was: use what u've done above to prove that $W^(1,1)(RR)$ embeds continuously in $C_0(R)$.. from the first post "Can (*) be extended beyond $C_c(RR)$, i.e. to a space strictly containing $C_c(RR)$?" I was supposed to imagine that? :lol:

anyway didn't know which space was the completion of which other so I couldn't solve this problem :wink: ... by the way, a nice one! especially the last result makes the exercise interesting for me (I learnt something):!: )

gugo82
Ok, I'm going to explain better the question with the answer... Maybe it's a little bit technical, I don't konw. :-D

The function $u\mapsto ||u||_(1,1):=||u||_1+||u'||_1$ is a norm (of Sobolev type) on $C_c^1(RR)$ and, if we equip $C_c^1(RR)$ with this norm, the normed space is not complete.
But $C_c^1(RR)$ has a completion w.r.t. $||\cdot ||_(1,1)$: this completion turns out to be the Sobolev space $W^(1,1)(RR)$, i.e. the space of weakly differentiable functions with weak derivative in $L^1(RR)$.

Take $u in W^(1,1)(RR)$ and $(u_n) \subseteq C_c^1(RR)$ s.t. $u_n to u$ in $W^(1,1)(RR)$ (i.e. $||u_n-u||_(1,1)\to 0$); since $W^(1,1)(RR)$ is $||\cdot||_(1,1)$-complete, $(u_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence and the trivial inequality:

$||u_n'-u_m'||_1<=||u_n-u_m||_(1,1)$

implies that $(u_n')$ is a Cauchy sequence in $L^1(RR)$ (which obviously converges to $u'$).

Now (*) comes into play: infact, since $(u_n')$ is $||\cdot ||_1$-Cauchy's, by (*) $(u_n)$ is $||||_oo$-Cauchy's, i.e. $(u_n)$ converges uniformly in $RR$ to a continuous function; let $v$ be the uniform limit of $(u_n)$: this function trivially belongs to the $||\cdot ||_oo$-completion of $C_c$, which is the space $C_0(RR)$ of the functions which vanish at infinity.
On the other hand, $(u_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence in $L^1(RR)$, for:

$||u_n-u_m||_1<=||u_n-u_m||_(1,1) \quad$,

and $u_n\to u$ in $L^1(RR)$.

Summarizing, we have:

$\{(u_n\to u, " in " L^1(RR)),(u_n \to v, " in "C_0(RR)) :} \quad$,

therefore $u=v$ a.e. in $RR$ for known results of Measure Theory.
We have proven that each $u in W^(1,1)$ is continuous and vanishes at infinity*, therefore we have the continuous embedding $W^(1,1)(RR) \subseteq C_0(RR)$ (continuity is a consequence of (*), since $u_n \to u$ in $W^(1,1)$ implies $u_n to u$ in $C_0$). 8-)


__________
* This is an abuse of notation: each $u in W^(1,1)(RR)$ is, infact, a sort of equivalence class of functions (w.r.t. equality a.e.); the statement has to be read as: "Each $u in W^(1,1)(RR)$ has a representative element $v \in C_0(RR)$".

Thomas16
"Gugo82":
What I had in mind was: "What if we take the completion of $C_c^1(RR)$ with respect to the Sobolev norm $||u||_(1,1) :=||u||_1+||u'||_1$, i.e. the Sobolev space $W^(1,1)(RR)$?"

In other words, can inequality (*) be used to find an embedding of $W^(1,1)(RR)$ into another space?


I don't understand... you want a maximal subspace (if it exists... I don't think it's obvious because the relation is not automatically "linear") in $W^(1,1)$ where (*) is true?

and what is the meaning of what you say after "In other words"? don't see how it connects to the first part... :!:...

maybe this language is too technical for me...

gugo82
What I had in mind was: "What if we take the completion of $C_c^1(RR)$ with respect to the Sobolev norm $||u||_(1,1) :=||u||_1+||u'||_1$, i.e. the Sobolev space $W^(1,1)(RR)$?"

In other words, can inequality (*) be used to find an embedding of $W^(1,1)(RR)$ into another space?


Thomas16
I guess yes... for example with $f=exp(-x^2)$

$W=C^1_c(RR)\o+{\alpha f}_{\alpha in \RR}$

if the answer is "yes", I'll try to show in a second time that $W$ works (the idea is that the fast decreasing function should't change the norms with respect to a function with support compact approximating it, but I didn't try to see if it works)....

gugo82
"Thomas":
[quote="Gugo82"]A classical integral inequality implies:
$\quad |u(x)|=\int_(-oo)^(x) |u'(t)|" d"t \quad$ and $\quad |u(x)|=\int_x^(+oo)|u'(t)|" d"t \quad$

I guess here you wanted to write two inequality signs :wink:[/quote]
Yes, of course! :-D

"Gugo82":
Can (*) be extended beyond $C_c^1(RR)$, i.e. to a space strictly containing $C_c^1(RR)$?

Now, what about this question?

Thomas16
"Gugo82":
A classical integral inequality implies:
$\quad |u(x)|=\int_(-oo)^(x) |u'(t)|" d"t \quad$ and $\quad |u(x)|=\int_x^(+oo)|u'(t)|" d"t \quad$

I guess here you wanted to write two inequality signs :wink:
"Gugo82":

It remains to solve the second part of the problem. in order to do this, it suffices to show that $2$ is the best constant in (*) and that equality holds for symmetric-decreasing functions. This part is very simple.

eheh... in the case of symmetric decreasing if $x=x_0$ in your proof then the equality signs are correct :lol:

gugo82
Ok, it seems correct.

My solution is the following (and it relies on elementary Calculus facts).
Take $x_1
(a) $\quad u(x_2)-u(x_1)=\int_(x_1)^(x_2) u'(t)" d"t \quad$;

but it's $lim_(x\to pm oo) u(x)=0$ and then, putting $x_1=-oo,x_2=x$ and $x_1=x,x_2=+oo$ in (a), we get:

$\quad u(x)=\int_(-oo)^(x) u'(t)" d"t \quad$ and $\quad -u(x)=\int_x^(+oo)u'(t)" d"t \quad$.

A classical integral inequality implies:

$\quad |u(x)|<=\int_(-oo)^(x) |u'(t)|" d"t \quad$ and $\quad |u(x)|<=\int_x^(+oo)|u'(t)|" d"t \quad$

so that an addiction term by term yelds:

(b) $\quad 2 |u(x)|<= \int_(-oo)^(+oo) |u'(t)|" d"t =||u'||_1$

with the LHS constant with respect to $x$; then taking the least upper bounds in (b) we have (*) with constant $c=2$.
Easy but nice. 8-)

It remains to solve the second part of the problem. in order to do this, it suffices to show that $2$ is the best constant in (*) and that equality holds for symmetric-decreasing functions. This part is very simple.

Thomas16
This is my trial...

definitions:

$K=[x_(min),x_(max)]$ be a compact interval containg the support of the function

$C={x in K |u'(x)>0}$

$B={x in K |u'(x)<0}$

$f$ the point where the funcion has its maximum... wlog (we can change the sign of the function without changing the norms) we can imagine $f$ in the interior of $K$ and $u(f)=M>0$... otherwise we can say that $u$ is null...

$I=(x_min,f)$
$F=(f,x_max)$

and neglecting sets of null measure it holds $K=Iuuu F$... all the sets above are open (becaus $u'$ is $C^0$) and so Lesbege measurable)

now it is intuitive

$int_I u'=M => int_(I\cap C)|u'|>=M$ [1]
$int_F u'=-M => int_(F\cap B)|u'|>=M$ [2]

and using the results above

$||u'||=int_I|u'|+int_F|u'|>= int_(I\capC)|u'|+ int_(F\capB)|u'|>=2M$

giving the answer of $c=2$ to the problem... is it correct?

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